Did Jesus Heal “All” in One Incident (Mt 8:16; Lk 4:40), or “Many” but Not All (Mk 1:34)?

[This is a portion of my book, Inspired!: 198 Supposed Biblical Contradictions Resolved (available for free online). All Bible passages RSV]

Mark 1:34 records that “he healed many”. There could be several reasons for this qualification, but the most likely — in context –, is because of the sheer numbers of people: “And the whole city was gathered together about the door” (Mark 1:33). This was in Capernaum (Mark 1:21), which had an estimated population of 1,500 at that time. Let’s assume that 10% of all these people, or 150 needed to be healed, and let’s assume Jesus spent five minutes with each one. That would add up to twelve-and-a-half hours. It’s not physically possible that he could heal all of them (because he generally touched those whom he healed).

Furthermore, Mark 1:28 states that “at once his fame spread everywhere throughout all the surrounding region of Galilee.” There were two towns fairly close by. Bethsaida was six miles away and Chorazin was only two miles. We also know from Mark 1:32 that “at sundown, they brought to him all who were sick or possessed with demons.” Let’s say that sundown was 6 PM. Jesus would be healing them until 6:30 the next morning and get no sleep at all. That’s just not feasible. And so he healed “many” but not all. Even if we say he spent two minutes with each person, that would take five hours. Sunset could have been three hours later, too, depending on the season. All three accounts described lots of people, and healings taking place after sunset.

In Matthew 8:16, where it says he “healed all who were sick” it depends on what one means by “all.” I say that because two verses later we learn that that “when Jesus saw great crowds around him, he gave orders to go over to the other side [of the Sea of Galilee]” (8:18). We can be quite sure that in this crowd of people that he deliberately avoided by crossing the sea, there would have been many more asking to be healed (since they observed healing taking place). So he didn’t heal absolutely all in this instance. “All” is necessarily limited in scope. In fact, he healed all who asked and were able in a crowd to get to him before He departed to the other side of the sea.

Luke 4:40 states: “he laid his hands on every one of them and healed them” but that, too, could simply have meant “all” until such time as he left and went across the sea (as in Matthew): which simply wasn’t mentioned. Luke implies that there were “never-ending” crowds, too, in noting that “reports of him went out into every place in the surrounding region” (4:37) and (the next day) “the people sought him and came to him, and would have kept him from leaving them” (4:42), so “every one” has to have a limit at some point. 

In effect, then, all three passages are saying the same thing: he healed as many as he possibly could (who were able to get access to him) before having to leave. It’s not likely that Jesus healed “absolutely every person” in such a great crowd, in one evening before the usual bedtime. Language always has to be understood in context. Even in Mark’s account, where it is more literal and reads “he healed many” it states three verses later that his disciples told him: “Every one is searching for you” (Mark 1:37): which is non-literal language, meaning, “a great number; a lot.” We talk the same way today in saying things like, “everyone likes ice cream” or “everyone loves a good story”, etc.