How to deal with Non-Trinitarians

If you haven't read this article yet, I highly suggest that you read it, first. Dear Pope Francis, what about Russian persecution of Eastern Catholics?

So, I was flipping through my Bible (have you got a better way for me to come up with articles)? And I came across this, “’you judge according to the flesh, I judge no one. Yet, even if I do judge, my judgement is true, for it is not I who judge, but I and the Father who sent me. In your law, it is written, that the testimony of two people is true.

I am the one who bears witness about myself, and the Father who sent me bears witness about me.’

They said, therefore, ‘where is your Father’? Jesus answered; ‘you know neither me nor my Father, if you knew me, you would know my Father also’. These words he spoke in the treasury, as he taught in the temple, but no one arrested him because his hour had not come”. (John 8:15-20)

There’s a bit more, but I want to focus on one place in particular.

Before we get started on that, check out my Locals community, Catholicism, News, and whatever community

Consider this, “in your law, it is written that the testimony of two people are true”. (John 8:17), and Jesus applies this to him and his Father.

Now, in English, we tend to use “people” and “person” interchangeably. Which is probably why the ESV translators used “people”. (? John 8:17 ?) . Looks like the word is “men”.

But, what I find interesting is the idea of shared authority.

Well, why does Jesus share that authority with his Father?

Consider the following verses, because saves room, we’ll start at v. 51,

“’Truly, truly, I say to you if anyone keeps my word, he will never see death.’ The Jews said to him, ‘Now we know that you have a demon! Abraham died, as did the prophets, yet you say, ‘If anyone keeps my word, he will never taste death’ (John 8:51-52)

I wanted to type more, but my hands really hurt. I’ve not been feeling well for the last few days, anyway, read the rest of John 8 on your own.

I know everyone wants to claim that certain verses are interpolations, but, check out v. 58-59

“’Jesus said to them, Truly, Truly I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.’ So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple.” (John 8:58-59)

So, why did they pick up stones, was it simply because of his claim to be the messiah? Unlikely, Akiva and the Second Jewish Revolt.

Bar Kokhba wasn’t killed because he claimed to be the messiah. He was killed because he went to war with the Roman Empire. The Jews didn’t have the death penalty for claiming to be the messiah. (How else would they know who the messiah was)? They DID have it for blasphemy. Remember, Jesus uses the divine name as a title for himself, see Exodus 3:14.

The Jews clearly took it to mean he was claiming to be God.

So, we can surmise two things, Jesus shares in his Father’s judgements (an attribute of God), and he claimed to be the Divine “I am”. Thus, we can say that Jesus is portrayed as God in The Bible. I know a lot of people will claim these verses are an interpolation, let them. But this does not mean it never happened.

I’m sure Bart Ehrman and the like will find some problem with this.

But, as it stands, Jesus is portrayed as God in the New Testament, even in the Gospel of Mark, (Yes, Mark portrays Jesus as Godl)

But, that’s not primarily whom I am dealing with. I am dealing with Jehovah’s Witnesses and other people that claim Jesus isn’t co-equal with the Father. If he’s not, why was he given the divine prerogative to judge from his Father? Why does Jesus apply the testimony of two witnesses to him and his Father?

It seems to me that Jesus is saying that he and the Father have that same authority, because there is a shared nature between the two. Hmm, if only we had a word for that; Homoousion

Adam Charles Hovey is the creator of the Catholicism, News, and, whatever community on Locals, and host of the weekly Bible study “Coffee and Christianity”.

*All verses from the English Standard Version, Catholic Edition.