How can Mary be without sin?

When we read Scripture apart from a clear understanding of context, culture, and the writer's intention, then we may be convinced there are things about our faith that are not true. For example, our Protestant friends would love to point to St. Paul's writings in the book of Romans or St. John's writings in the book of I John as evidence that Mary was not sinless.

"All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God," declares Paul in Romans 3:23. He also writes in Romans 3:10 that, "none is righteous, no not one."

When I was a Protestant, I would easily point to these scriptures if someone told me Mary was sinless. It was easy to point to them and go, "see, believing Mary is sinless is against Scripture." However, as a devoted Protestant that studied and read the Bible consistently, I never stopped to consider the context of my argument.

To say that every single human being that walked the planet has sinned requires one to say that Jesus Christ sinned. Protestants focus more on the holiness and godliness of Jesus rather than him human side. This is not intentional on their part. It is a love of Christ being Redeemer and Lord that causes a singular focus. As a result, Jesus being fully man while being fully God will cause a problem with the argument that "all" means "all". 

If Jesus was fully man while being fully God then He was still fully man. If that is the case, then to say every single man that has walked the earth and taken a breath has sin is to concede that Jesus would be included in "every single man."

To argue that Jesus' divinity somehow made him except from "all" (even though "all" is supposed to mean "all" according to Protestants), is to acknoweldge that "all" cannot, in any way, mean "all" or Jesus was not fully man. 

The Bible clearly says in Hebrews 4:15 that Jesus was "tempted as we are, yet without sinning." How can Jesus be tempted to sin, remain sinless, but yet somehow qualify under "all" as being sinners? It is simply impossible.

If we are to concede there are "exceptions" to the "all" (as in Jesus being an exception), then it is possible to argue that "if there are exceptions, then does that mean is it possible for there to be an exception for the Mother of God to have been protected from sin?

There is a clear distinction that must be made with these scriptures that our Protestant friends will point to in trying to defend their position. All three of those Scriptures apply to personal sin. They do not apply to original sin. These scriptures are speaking about sins we commit once we are living. It does not speak of original sin.

Original sin is nothing we "do". It is nothing we "commit". It is something we inherit. We are born with it whether we like it or not.

There are exceptions to "sinners". If we are to say that a baby in the womb is still a child and still a human, then a baby in the womb cannot commit sin, yet one would have to argue that Romans 3:23's "all" must apply to them as well. One would argue that the mentally challenged could not commit sin because they would not be aware of right and wrong. There you go. Then one would have to concede that there are even more exceptions than just Jesus to the "all" in Romans. 

So, why wouldn't the Mother of God be granted an exception? Why wouldn't God allow the woman that said "yes' to bearing the Messiah be granted freedom from sin?